View Full Version : a question for the basketball experts
IHS Fan
03-23-2008, 03:18 PM
why is it that when the fouls start coming at the end of a game, none of them are called intentional fouls when clearly they are?
Emerson1
03-23-2008, 04:18 PM
Because the refs can't assume that they are doing it on purpose. Who's to say they weren't going for the steal? That is what I would think.
maestro
03-23-2008, 07:26 PM
correct....
cannot assume.....
cannot be any worse than the multiple t.v. mandated commercial breaks......
i swear during the duke-west virginia game.....the pace was a commercial break every 3 trips down the floor..
Matthew328
03-23-2008, 07:38 PM
I believe it is the intent of the foul, at the end of the game the intent of the foul is for strategic purposes......
Emerson1
03-23-2008, 07:40 PM
I can't remember the last time I even saw an intentional foul called. Do they have that in the NBA or is that just a flagrant?
cshscougar08
03-23-2008, 08:14 PM
Yeah they have it in the NBA. Just don't see it a lot.
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