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Saggy Aggie
09-18-2015, 06:34 PM
What I want to know is... If a man and a woman already have one child, is there an increased likelihood that they have the same gender child for the second child or is it still truly 50/50? Does that man/woman pair have a genetic predisposition toward male/female?

What say you, geniuses of txdl?

Pudlugger
09-18-2015, 08:57 PM
50-50

cowboyandchrist
09-18-2015, 09:22 PM
50-50

I know friends that had all girls and friends that had all boys, so only God knows.